• sbeak@sopuli.xyz
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    12 days ago

    And for an infinite series where | r | < 1 (absolute value of r is less than one), you can get a finite value. But how can this be? Let’s look back at this equation.

    Sn = a(1 - r^n) / (1 - r)

    When n tends towards infinity, it becomes very big. And since r is very small, r^n tends towards zero. You can try it out for yourself, typing a positive number less than 1 to the power of a really big number nets you a very very small number. As n becomes closer to infinity, r^n becomes closer to 0. So we can substitute r^n with zero like this:

    Sn = a(1 - 0) / (1 - r)

    = a / (1 - r)

    And since this both a, the first term, and r, the common ratio, is finite, Sn must also be finite! And to go back to Zeno’s paradox. Let’s say a = 1 and r = 1/2. This means:

    Sn = 1 / (1 - r)

    = 1 / (1 - 0.5)

    = 1 / 0.5

    = 2

    You find that Sn is the finite value 2. Maths is cool!

    • sbeak@sopuli.xyz
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      12 days ago

      This, however, does not work if the absolute value of r is greater than or equal to one. The sum of all terms for such a geometric sequence would not be finite. (think 2 + 4 + 8 + …, the total sum is infinite as r = 2)